Originally Posted by
Baron Von Strucker
I have a tip rule which is the first two numbers and doubling it, in this case 82k would be close to $1650.
After taxes (net amount) and before taxes on restaurant invoice of course
Restaurant is a different story, and I don't want to get into that discussion here.
But why tip $1650 for a single hand? Don't you think this is excessive, especially since this win is just making up for greater past losses?
Why should the dealer receive $1650 for this hand and only a small amount (or even zero) when you win a normal hand?
As I said, this isn't like a poker tournament where you're tipping all dealers combined for several days of work. This is literally a tip for one hand.
That's the big difference here which some of you seem to be missing.