Originally Posted by
Salty_Aus
Are you sure about the fact he couldn't pay rent?
I think this only applies to someone who is being evicted for not paying rent.
"if you attempt to pay all the past-due rent demanded after the three-day period expires, the landlord can either file a lawsuit to evict you or accept the rent payment. If the landlord accepts the rent, the landlord waives (gives up) the right to evict you based on late payment of rent."
Yes, I am sure.
While the vast majority of evictions involve the non-payment of rent, there are indeed evictions for other reasons, such as the one in this case involving Mr. Scalir.
Accepting any sort of rent after filing an eviction requires the current eviction filing to be terminated. If it is not, the court will immediately terminate it upon learning the landlord has accepted rent.
Why?
The unlawful detainer process (eviction) is essentially a declaration of termination of the rental contract. It is the landlord stating, "You have violated your lease, and therefore we are terminating our contract with you." The landlord then takes the matter to court in order to affirm the termination of this contract, at which point the tenant can be legally removed (and back-rent awarded).
However, when a landlord accepts rent, it signals a continuance of this contract, thus their move to terminate it (the eviction) is no longer valid.
I can compare it to the following situation:
Say you are at a party, and you meet a woman you find attractive. After some banter back and forth, you make a suggestion that the two of you go off to the side somewhere and engage in sexual activity.
The woman doesn't take kindly to this, tells you in no uncertain terms to leave her alone, and informs you that any attempt to touch her will result in a police complaint regarding sexual assault.
You quickly back off and avoid her.
However, 30 minutes later, she returns to you, and seems friendly again. After awhile of chatting, you give it one more shot, and ask her to go to the other room with you to mess around. Surprisingly, she agrees this time, and you go off to the side somewhere and she blows you.
Could she later make the claim that you committed sexual assault against her, because she told you 30 minutes prior not to touch her?
Clearly not, because her later consent supersedes the prior lack of consent. Of course, in this situation you may have trouble proving she gave the later consent, but provided you could (say several people witnessed the second conversation), you would be legally in the clear.
In this case, a landlord accepting rent during an eviction process would be like the landlord taking you in the back room, blowing you, and then complaining that you sexually assaulted her.
I hope this is more clear.